Legal Transfer of Shotgun to my Wife?

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  • Bountied

    Ultimate Member
    Apr 6, 2012
    7,151
    Pasadena
    Keep the 4473's that were filled out for all of the firearms. With regards to handguns, if they were transferred in Maryland, then do a PIA request to MSP for the firearms listed as transferred to you and have your (now separated) wife to do the same to prove ownership.
    All the guns in our house are mine/ours. I don't need proof from the MSP. Most of the 4473s I have you can't even read since they are the bottom carbon copy. It's just dark smudges on a pink piece of paper. Pretty much worthless.
     

    dblas

    Past President, MSI
    MDS Supporter
    Apr 6, 2011
    13,110
    OK... buy the gun. Give it to her. There, it's hers. Does she want a certificate that she can frame and put on the wall to show people it's hers? Get her name engraved on it? Nothing says I own this like engraving it with your moniker. That's why people know my power tools are mine, my name is on it.
    Your last name is DeWalt???
     

    trickg

    Guns 'n Drums
    MDS Supporter
    Jul 22, 2008
    14,725
    Glen Burnie
    Good morning everyone! I appreciate the time and information you guys have put out in this thread.

    With all of that in mind, one thing I will not be doing is asking anyone at the Bass Pro counter if my wife can be the one to fill out the 4473. Getting this thing ordered was already a PITA due to that particular gun having some kind of an issue with how it was put into the system, negating the ability to order it at all. The last thing I'm going to do is to have them get heavy-set with me about it at the counter, canceling the order and me going home empty handed. I'm just going to quietly do the paperwork for the gun, take it, and go.

    I've had an IP reach out to me and say that they'd be willing to do the legal transfer to my wife for free, so I may wind up doing that if it's that important to my wife.

    Your last name is DeWalt???

    No, Makita. Don't judge me.
    That's just funny right there. :lol: :lol2:
     

    jef955

    Active Member
    MDS Supporter
    Feb 26, 2011
    763
    Maryland
    No it is not. The vehicles titled in my name that I purchased during the marriage, while considered marital property, are mine. A judge CANNOT change title of any asset in divorce. What he can do is award a monetary judgment to my wife. Same goes for the guns. All the guns, except one handgun, are titled in my name.
    Interesting, but if she is entitled to what I would assume is a 50 percent share of property purchased while married, doesn't that imply partial ownership ?

    I'v never been through a divorce, let alone any sort of lawsuit, so I have no previoous experience with this type of thing.
     

    fabsroman

    Ultimate Member
    Mar 14, 2009
    35,932
    Winfield/Taylorsville in Carroll
    Interesting, but if she is entitled to what I would assume is a 50 percent share of property purchased while married, doesn't that imply partial ownership ?

    I'v never been through a divorce, let alone any sort of lawsuit, so I have no previoous experience with this type of thing.
    The judge cannot change title to anything unless the parties to the divorce agree. What the judge can do is award a monetary judgment. Just as a simple example, let's say husband owns a $200,000 Ferrari that is only in his name. It was purchased during the marriage and with marital money (i.e., not money that can be traced to husband having prior to the marriage). Then, the judge cannot transfer the Ferrari to wife, but he can say, out of that marital asset worth $200,000, wife is entitled to $100,000. Husband then needs to pay wife $100,000. If husband needs to sell the Ferrari to come up with the $100,000, such is life.

    Of course, the judge looks at all the assets, whether they are marital in nature, and then the judge comes up with a lump sum monetary award to try and make things "equitable".

    Edited to change: "out of that marital asset worth $200,000, wife is entitled to $100,000."
     
    Last edited:

    chilipeppermaniac

    Ultimate Member
    MDS Supporter
    Yeah, they don't have deeds either. However, they are owned by somebody and proof of ownership can usually be accomplished one way or another.

    In a divorce, do you think my wife can prove proof of ownership over the guns I purchased?
    All I can say to this is, I sure hope that both Fabs and Mrs Fabs live a long life and they only separation is " till death do us part."
     

    jef955

    Active Member
    MDS Supporter
    Feb 26, 2011
    763
    Maryland
    The judge cannot change title to anything unless the parties to the divorce agree. What the judge can do is award a monetary judgment. Just as a simple example, let's say husband owns a $200,000 Ferrari that is only in his name. It was purchased during the marriage and with marital money (i.e., not money that can be traced to husband having prior to the marriage). Then, the judge cannot transfer the Ferrari to wife, but he can say, out of that marital asset worth $200,000, wife is entitled to $200,000. Husband then needs to pay wife $100,000. If husband needs to sell the Ferrari to come up with the $100,000, such is life.

    Of course, the judge looks at all the assets, whether they are marital in nature, and then the judge comes up with a lump sum monetary award to try and make things "equitable".
    Aah ok, makles sense. You must be one of the resident lawyers - or learned the hard way !
     

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