kcbrown
Super Genius
- Jun 16, 2012
- 1,393
kcbrown, I think I figured out your reading and comprehension problem. You like to use non-standard definitions. We wind up talking about different things, thinking we are talking about the same thing.
That is possible. We'll see.
Ah, yes, this is true, and a very good point. You're thinking that when I say ∆S, I'm referring to the individual effect only. And that's true. My problem is that I misstated how that relates back to public safety.Public safety is an aggregated effect, yet you also refer to its individual components as the same thing.
That means my formula really ought to be:
P' = P + ∑(∆S) + ∑(∆O)
Assuming, of course, that ∆O also needs aggregation (if it does not, then omit the aggregation function for it in the above).
You make a good point here, but it doesn't change my original assertion one bit.
If that's what I'm doing, then it's not my intent. I'll have to revise the formulas to reflect the aggregation. See above.What is ironic about this is that you insist that "you cannot divorce the aggregate from the individual" yet you do exactly that with public safety.
That is certainly possible, of course, but the problem here is that self-defense is the foundation of a fundamental Constitutional right. That automatically gives it massive importance over and beyond other things that impact public safety that themselves do not have the same stature.Can you help me understand the importance that changes to "self defense" always effect the "self defense" portion of public safety. Given that other things impact public safety (aggregate), the total effect on public safety may be dominated by those other factors.
Right. Self-defense is an individual thing, with effects to it measured individually first, and then aggregated after.I understand your point about an aggregated "self defense", but the definition of self defense is not an aggregated effect.
But that's not so at all. The first amendment right to speech is something that, just like with self-defense, yields an effect on others even if what is being considered is with respect to the individual who wishes to engage in speech. When a person is unable to engage in speech, it means he is unable to reach an audience, which means that everyone in his audience is affected by the restrictions on that specific person's speech.It is a really important concept when understanding the courts interest balancing approach. I may be easier to understand it with respect to other individual rights like the first amendment. What is the difference in the individuals first amendment rights vs the aggregated right? I would contend that there is no appreciable difference because there are no (substantial) additional benefits to the aggregated right.
I think the two may be closer to each other than you think.
OK, let's explore that a bit, because I think you may have a valid point here, depending on your answers.The second amendment is very different, there is a substantial benefit with the aggregated right. When you apply a test that does not take this aggregated effect into account you will get the wrong answer because you are essentially ignoring its effects. When I am talking about an interest balancing approach, I am talking about balancing the aggregated effects, not the individual one articulated by the court.
What exactly do you mean by the "aggregated right"? How would you measure it, if not as an aggregate of the individual effects? How does it compare with the "collective right" approach that was explicitly overturned in Heller? How does it fit in with the decision that the right to arms is an individual one?
LOL! That's an awesome sign!Your definition of "dangerous" is another example of an non-standard definition. I see no indication in the dictionary (standard) definition that "one must go out of their way" for it to be considered dangerous. By that definition this sign is dangerous.
The question you should be asking yourself is whether or not the objects that meet the criteria I specified are in any way inconsistent with the definition. I do not see how they would be. It is precisely because interaction with them -- that, but for luck or training or the aforementioned care, would result in injury -- is easily accomplished to the point that accidental injury is a substantial concern. Since one of the definitions is "able or likely to cause injury, pain, harm, etc.", it follows that the objects I speak of are fully compatible with the definition of "dangerous".
I did not at all intend to mean that such objects were the only objects that are "dangerous", and I alluded to that in the part you're referring to. And while I cannot think of any objects which are dangerous only when interacted with but which do not require that one go out of his way to ensure that harm does not come to another when they interact with the object, I suppose it's possible that such objects exist. Regardless, the objects with the characteristic I outlined most certainly qualify as "dangerous", and firearms are included in that set.
So you haven't really done anything to address my primary argument, which is that firearms qualify as "dangerous" objects by the commonly understood definition of the term, the use of "dangerous" as a term applied to objects is in the common vernacular, and therefore you will be laughed out of the courtroom if you attempt to argue that firearms are not "dangerous".
Except that the evidence shows quite the opposite. Concealed carry does contribute to personal defense, as evidenced by the numerous times that concealed carriers have avoided injury or death by deploying their firearms. Of course, one can make the same argument about open carry, too.When I said concealed carry is too dangerous, I was paraphrasing. You understand the criminal part, but you fail to understand the part where it does not "contribute to public or personal defence" That is what makes it dangerous.
Furthermore, you make the mistake of presuming that if something doesn't "contribute" (i.e., improve), then it must make it worse (e.g., be "dangerous"). But that doesn't follow from carry of firearms at all. If a person carries around a firearm and otherwise never touches it, except to remove the holster and put it on, then it won't even have an effect arising from accidents. However, that is clearly a somewhat low-probability thing. People will be manipulating the firearm from time to time, if only to take it out of and put it back into a safe or something.
That said, yes, accidents from firearms are clearly a public safety concern. The question clearly has to be how much.
Oh, I agree for the most part. But just as the people back then didn't have the internet, and yet historical analysis of the right to speech still yields the basic principle that what is important to protect is the ability to communicate, so too does an historical analysis of carry yield the basic principle that what is important to protect is the ability to carry itself.I am not trying to dispute that in today's world there is substantial benefit to concealed carry, I am disputing that the historical analysis (which does not take into consideration today's standards) would allow concealed carry. The people back then would not carry concealed because it was not an honorable way to carry.
One other thing, as regards the historical analysis. You talk about how people back then would not carry concealed because it was not an "honorable" way to carry. But I don't think that's quite the right nuance to take away from the analysis. No, the people back then would not carry concealed because they believed that concealed carry was indicative of ill intent, and thus it made them uneasy. Fast forward to today. Today, much of the population regards open carry as indicative of ill intent. So if one is to take away a basic principle from all of that, it's that it's permissible to ban the form of carry that would place the public at unease.
Then your contention must be that the 9th Circuit would strike the open carry ban. Right? Anything else means that the 9th Circuit is actually intent on burying the right to carry.I am not going to get into an argument about whether Peruta specifically used the term concealed carry. Peruta does not address the question of open carry. The ordinance that he is challenging is the right of the sheriff to issue concealed carry permits. This is due to the fact that CA law does not allow open carry. The circuit court ruling takes into account today's standards with respect to concealed carry. The dissent is stating that Heller requires the historical analysis, which would not allow concealed carry.
That is possible, of course. But what specific interest balancing would you suggest? The one mentioned by Breyer in his dissent in Heller, perhaps? One would think not, seeing how it was explicitly enjoined in Heller.Woollard is different. The 4CA used the wrong interest balancing approach (see above). The court also found that the right could be exercised without the permit in a few limited places, which was acceptable using this incorrect interest balancing approach. I personally believe that if the correct interest balancing approach is used the MD laws would be found unconstitutional.
No, I'm not. By "got it wrong", I mean that the 9th circuit believes the panel got the reasoning wrong. Incorrect reasoning yields incorrect conclusions, except by chance. But the reasoning here is based on an actual historical analysis done in the same way it was done in Heller, applied to the totality of the circumstances in the case just as was done in Heller. Since the methodology was the same as in Heller, for the 9th Circuit to disagree with the reasoning means that it intends to substitute the dissent's approach or the approach of the 2nd, 3rd, and/or 4th Circuits, which are really all the same thing, and that means reversing the outcome. Otherwise, you have to posit some brand new approach that the 9th Circuit will adopt that has, to my knowledge, neither been briefed nor argued.Your logic is simply based on the premise (A->A) A="such reevaluation is necessary only if the prevailing belief is that the panel got it wrong", "the decision is incorrect as well" is the same thing as saying the "panel got it wrong" (A->A), "decision like this one that is incorrect is one that must be reversed" is saying the same thing (A->A). There is no deductive logic, you are only restating your premise.
The parallels to Heller must not be overlooked. While Heller calls what DC had a "complete ban", it actually included a licensing scheme. The registration requirement was a complete ban, but Heller didn't stop at that, it simultaneously addressed the licensing scheme. If "may issue" were sufficient to satisfy the right, Heller would have left the licensing scheme alone, and struck only the registration prohibition. Therefore, "may issue" cannot satisfy the right, since if it could, Heller would have left it alone due to the doctrine of Constitutional Avoidance.
Again, I do agree that plaintiffs in Peruta (and the other carry cases, as well, save for Woollard) erred by not simultaneously raising a challenge to the open carry ban, demanding as relief that concealed carry licenses be issued and/or that the open carry ban be struck.
Yes. "Rarer". So rare that there is a probability somewhere between 0.24% and 0.48% of a given case being taken en banc. And in the 2nd Amendment arena, we've seen that happen twice in a row as regards our 2nd Amendment wins in the 9th Circuit. The probability of that happening is somewhere between 1 in 43000 and 1 in 174000. And that's for all en banc. Sua sponte is much rarer still, and yet that is precisely the mechanism by which both of our wins in the 9th Circuit went en banc. Mere coincidence? The odds are vastly against that.You should read http://www.federalbarcouncil.org/vg/custom/uploads/pdfs/En_Banc_Report.pdf en-banc is not required and is according to the report even rarer than SCOTUS cases.
What should be a rare occurrence is less than rare when we win a 2nd Amendment case in the 9th Circuit. Why aren't the cases where we lose in the 9th Circuit being taken up en banc sua sponte at anything like the same rate (indeed, why hasn't it happened at all)?
And do you believe both outcomes have an equal probability of occurring?It is not designed to eliminate splits, it is designed to eliminate unnecessary ones. The court is taking the time to determine if this split is a necessary one. The laws are not black and white and neither is the second amendment. There are two possible outcomes, affirmed and overruled. Both are possible outcomes.
Answer this: if the 9th Circuit were to uphold, what reasoning would they use? It would have to be something different from what the panel used, since there's no point in taking the case en banc if those who voted to do so already agree with the panel's reasoning. But what could they possibly substitute that has already been briefed, much less argued, when what has been briefed and argued, as far as I know, leads straight to either the panel's reasoning or the dissent's?
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