Can a felon shoot rental guns

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  • Mike

    Propietario de casa, Toluca, México
    MDS Supporter
    I've taken family members from England to ranges here and the only ID anyone has asked for is mine. Family members are usually drooling over all the guns they see.

    Is there anything wrong with taking foreign tourist friends to a range to let them shoot guns?
     

    Rangeishot

    Member
    Nov 25, 2017
    23
    Manchester
    I served on a Fed Grand Jury for 18 months. This came up several times where felons were tracked by ATF for going to the range. Indictments were 100% served.
     

    spoon059

    Ultimate Member
    Jun 1, 2018
    5,396
    I served on a Fed Grand Jury for 18 months. This came up several times where felons were tracked by ATF for going to the range. Indictments were 100% served.
    Like I said, it's possible, but not probable. Either way, still illegal.

    Sent from my SM-N970U using Tapatalk
     

    lazarus

    Ultimate Member
    Jun 23, 2015
    13,724
    Is there anything wrong with taking foreign tourist friends to a range to let them shoot guns?

    Non-citizens if they are legally in the US are generally not prohibited from possession. I’d do a bit more research to confirm that, but I am 98% sure (but not like “put my own butt on the line” sure).
     

    lazarus

    Ultimate Member
    Jun 23, 2015
    13,724
    There are plenty of victimless crimes that will get one put on the permanent prohibited person list.

    I used to feel that no felon should ever get their voting or firearms rights back, but as the State moves to make more and more relatively minor infractions either felonies or disqualifying misdemeanors, I'm starting to change my tune.

    We all realize that the object of the game is to turn as many otherwise law abiding citizens into prohibited persons as possible. Should someone who purchases a 30 round magazine be barred for life from voting or shooting. If that is the only thing they've ever done wrong, I would lean that they had paid their debt after serving their sentence and should have their rights restored.

    Where there are in fact victims, I would agree with your assessment RD. Penalty... then restitution... then we can talk about rights... maybe.

    This is half the reason I also don’t believe the current prohibited person criteria is good or okay.

    The other half is I think it needs to be the ACTUAL sentence if it’s a non-violent crime. If the possible sentence on a computer hacking crime is 10 years and you plead out or get convicted and sentenced to 6-months because what you really did was pretty minor, so you get handed a short sentence...or even just a non-confinement sentence, why the heck should you lose some of your rights after the sentence is served.

    Sometimes there is a victim, but the crime really does meet the definition of a minor violation. IE the same statute could both indicate a minor or a major crime, but has a single sentencing range.
     

    huesmann

    n00b
    Mar 23, 2012
    1,927
    Silver Spring, MD
    Repaid debt??? Not hardly.
    Until that murderer can bring their victim back to life... or the rapist unrape his victim... or the robber/burglar give the sense of security back to their victims... staying someplace in time out does not repay any debt to society. It merely punished the felon in an attempt to teach them not to do it again. Who ever came up with that repaid debt line... needs to rethink what repayment means.
    The sentences handed down by the courts are what we, as a society, have agreed to as the punishment for the crime. Once that punishment has been meted out and completed, an offender is considered to have paid his/her debt to society.

    Now you may feel that the penalties are insufficient. And that is your right in this country. And as a citizen you are more than welcome to start a movement to increase them. However, just because you feel they're insufficient doesn't mean everyone else thinks they are.
     

    Docster

    Ultimate Member
    Jul 19, 2010
    9,773
    So first of all, depends on the drug. Many pot possession crimes can now be expunged. My advice would first be: if its expunge-able, get it expunged.

    Second, "possession" is not the same as rental at a range. Nor is a range rental a loan.

    I would really have them ask their attorney about this, because there is not a blanket answer - depends on the crime, whether its able to be expunged, etc.

    There was a bill last session to define "loan" in the statute, but I believe it died at the last minute, due to a petulant house member, IIRC.

    The OP said his friends were drug felons. I don't believe any felonies can be expunged.
    Possession exists under property law. Each state may have it's quirks but out starts here;
    https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Possession_(law)
     

    aggorski

    Member
    Dec 11, 2015
    4
    Md is aggressively restrictive on this. Md law prohibits firearm ownership as well as possession by persons convicted of many different crimes. Therefore, the answer for you - the law-abiding firearms owner with no convictions - is a hard NO. The punishment by the State of Maryland would not be restricted to your co-workers. You would likely be prosecuted for knowingly allowing a convicted felon to possess your legally owned firearms and potentially lose your rights.

    Your co-workers should seek advice from an attorney so they know their rights. While some felonies may not disqualify those convicted from ownership/possession, most do. They should also find out if they are eligible to have their record expunged and whether expungement removes the firearm ownership/possession prohibition in Maryland. An expungement will depend on the law of the state where they were convicted. Some states, like VA, do not have a meaningful expungement or pardon process, so the record stands.
     

    esqappellate

    President, MSI
    Feb 12, 2012
    7,408
    Thanks, that is what I was thinking.

    By the way, non-citizens in the US may well be prohibited persons. See 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(5):
    It is unlawful to possess for a person

    (5) who, being an alien--
    (A) is illegally or unlawfully in the United States; or
    (B) except as provided in subsection (y)(2), has been admitted to the United States under a nonimmigrant visa (as that term is defined in section 101(a)(26) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(26)));

    For example, a person in the U.S. on a student visa may not possess
     
    Last edited:

    esqappellate

    President, MSI
    Feb 12, 2012
    7,408
    Non-citizens if they are legally in the US are generally not prohibited from possession. I’d do a bit more research to confirm that, but I am 98% sure (but not like “put my own butt on the line” sure).

    NOT necessarily true at all. See 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(5).
     

    danb

    dont be a dumbass
    Feb 24, 2013
    22,704
    google is your friend, I am not.
    The OP said his friends were drug felons. I don't believe any felonies can be expunged.

    Maryland lets you expunge possession with intent to distribute and some other felonies now (since 2018, see here https://www.mdcourts.gov/district/forms/criminal/expungementpublicnotice_102018). "Felony" is kind of a misnomer in Maryland, because classically "felony" means more than a year - however many MD "misdemeanors" will get you 10 years or more. You really have to talk to a lawyer to know precisely what the charges were and whether your rights can be restored.
     

    Mike

    Propietario de casa, Toluca, México
    MDS Supporter
    By the way, non-citizens in the US may well be prohibited persons. See 18 U.S.C. 922(5):
    It is unlawful to possess for a person

    (5) who, being an alien--
    (A) is illegally or unlawfully in the United States; or
    (B) except as provided in subsection (y)(2), has been admitted to the United States under a nonimmigrant visa (as that term is defined in section 101(a)(26) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(26)));

    For example, a person in the U.S. on a student visa may not possess

    So, based on

    "except that this paragraph shall not apply to (A) the transfer, transportation, or delivery of a firearm made to carry out a bequest of a firearm to, or an acquisition by intestate succession of a firearm by, a person who is permitted to acquire or possess a firearm under the laws of the State of his residence, and (B) the loan or rental of a firearm to any person for temporary use for lawful sporting purposes;"

    a temporary "loan" at a range or such is OK for a tourist under part B.
     

    esqappellate

    President, MSI
    Feb 12, 2012
    7,408
    So, based on

    "except that this paragraph shall not apply to (A) the transfer, transportation, or delivery of a firearm made to carry out a bequest of a firearm to, or an acquisition by intestate succession of a firearm by, a person who is permitted to acquire or possess a firearm under the laws of the State of his residence, and (B) the loan or rental of a firearm to any person for temporary use for lawful sporting purposes;"

    a temporary "loan" at a range or such is OK for a tourist under part B.

    No, the ban on possession includes *any* possession or constructive possession, no matter how temporary. Note that the applicable exception to (d)(5) and (g)(5) is:

    Exceptions.--Subsections (d)(5)(B), (g)(5)(B), and (s)(3)(B)(v)(II) do not apply to any alien who has been
    lawfully admitted to the United States under a nonimmigrant visa, if that alien is--
    (A) admitted to the United States for lawful hunting or sporting purposes or is in possession of a hunting license or permit lawfully issued in the United States;

    Now, it also depends on where the tourist is from. Some tourist aliens are admitted to the United without any visa if they meet the requirements of the visa waiver program. See https://travel.state.gov/content/travel/en/us-visas/tourism-visit/visa-waiver-program.html If you are admitted without any visa, then the bar on possession does not apply to you at all.
     

    TangoSierra27

    Active Member
    MDS Supporter
    Feb 28, 2017
    119
    FOREST HILL
    No Sir, you and them would be charged under Maryland law. They can not even have ammo on their person. You would be charged with a felony and if covicted would lose you right to firearms possession. I understand your feelings, but it's to risky to chance.
     

    Mike

    Propietario de casa, Toluca, México
    MDS Supporter
    So, based on

    "except that this paragraph shall not apply to (A) the transfer, transportation, or delivery of a firearm made to carry out a bequest of a firearm to, or an acquisition by intestate succession of a firearm by, a person who is permitted to acquire or possess a firearm under the laws of the State of his residence, and (B) the loan or rental of a firearm to any person for temporary use for lawful sporting purposes;"

    a temporary "loan" at a range or such is OK for a tourist under part B.

    No, the ban on possession includes *any* possession or constructive possession, no matter how temporary. Note that the applicable exception to (d)(5) and (g)(5) is:

    Exceptions.--Subsections (d)(5)(B), (g)(5)(B), and (s)(3)(B)(v)(II) do not apply to any alien who has been
    lawfully admitted to the United States under a nonimmigrant visa, if that alien is--
    (A) admitted to the United States for lawful hunting or sporting purposes or is in possession of a hunting license or permit lawfully issued in the United States;

    Now, it also depends on where the tourist is from. Some tourist aliens are admitted to the United without any visa if they meet the requirements of the visa waiver program. See https://travel.state.gov/content/travel/en/us-visas/tourism-visit/visa-waiver-program.html If you are admitted without any visa, then the bar on possession does not apply to you at all.

    So, the guy who posted earlier about taking his English visitors to the range was okay as long as they have the unrestricted right of permanent abode in England, Scotland, Wales, Northern Ireland, the Channel Islands, and the Isle of Man. Is that what all that byzantine language means? My head hurts, but thank you for the information.
     

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