Ethan83
Ultimate Member
So long story short, I've been exchanging emails with a guy out of state about doing some work on a rifle stock I have, including bedding. He doesn't have an FFL, but says there's an FFL nearby him that he uses when customers want to send their barreled action along with the stock for bedding work.
The thing is, it sounds like he's telling me that I can just ship the rifle directly to, and receive directly from, his local FFL. Now I know it's legit to do this for gunsmithing work when the gunsmith has the FFL, but I'm scratching my head wondering if this specific circumstance is sketchy. Since he doesn't have an FFL, doesn't his local FFL have to formally transfer the rifle to him on a 4473? And doesn't that then mean that it has to be transferred back to me on a 4473 by an FFL here in MD? Since the FFL I'd be shipping it to isn't doing the actual gunsmithing, (and the actual gunsmith doesn't have an FFL), wouldn't this mean that the 'exception' for not having to complete a 4473 transfer for gunsmithing wouldn't apply here?
He was specific that I would ship to his FFL, but include a note that the rifle was going to him, and to write his name on the money order for payment. I guess it all sounds relatively legit, up until the point where he said that his local FFL could ship the rifle directly back to me. They're not the gunsmith, so I would think that formal 4473 transfers with NICS check and all would be required on both ends.
Am I wrong here, or is this sketchy? I hope I'm using the terminology correctly.
Sounds like I should be finding a MD FFL that will handle the transfer and shipping, and just bite the bullet on the extra time/hassle/expense. Or am I overthinking this, and good-to-go with the arrangement this guy is describing?
The thing is, it sounds like he's telling me that I can just ship the rifle directly to, and receive directly from, his local FFL. Now I know it's legit to do this for gunsmithing work when the gunsmith has the FFL, but I'm scratching my head wondering if this specific circumstance is sketchy. Since he doesn't have an FFL, doesn't his local FFL have to formally transfer the rifle to him on a 4473? And doesn't that then mean that it has to be transferred back to me on a 4473 by an FFL here in MD? Since the FFL I'd be shipping it to isn't doing the actual gunsmithing, (and the actual gunsmith doesn't have an FFL), wouldn't this mean that the 'exception' for not having to complete a 4473 transfer for gunsmithing wouldn't apply here?
He was specific that I would ship to his FFL, but include a note that the rifle was going to him, and to write his name on the money order for payment. I guess it all sounds relatively legit, up until the point where he said that his local FFL could ship the rifle directly back to me. They're not the gunsmith, so I would think that formal 4473 transfers with NICS check and all would be required on both ends.
Am I wrong here, or is this sketchy? I hope I'm using the terminology correctly.
Sounds like I should be finding a MD FFL that will handle the transfer and shipping, and just bite the bullet on the extra time/hassle/expense. Or am I overthinking this, and good-to-go with the arrangement this guy is describing?
